To What Extent Was the Policy of Appeasement Mainly Responsible for the Collapse of International Peace by 1939?

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To what extent was the policy of appeasement mainly responsible for the collapse of International Peace by 1939? The policy of appeasement was led by Britain and France in the 1930s, when it referred to attempting to satisfy Germany's demands by negotiation and compromise, which would avoid war. It was implemented after World War 1 which was 1936 and ended at 1939. At 1939, September 1, Britain declared the World War 2. It is clear that if the Western Powers were against Hitler, war could have been avoided, it encouraged Hitler, Hitler could never be appeased, and that it prompted the Nazi-Soviet Pact. However due to its failure the policy of appeasement, to some extent was responsible for the collapse of International Pease by 1939, but not mainly responsible. There were superseded by other factors: Treaty of Versailles, the Great Depression, role of Hitler and the failure of League of Nations. Appeasement means giving into a nations demand in order to avoid further conflict or war. World War 1 caused the death of nearly nine million people and cost huge sums of money. Therefore most countries were anxious to avoid another war. The appeasement policy was the efforts by Britain from 1936 to 1939 to allow Nazi Germany to have pretty much everything Germany wanted in the hopes that eventually Hitler would be appeased and stop his aggressive policies. Chamberlain believed in appeasement. Chamberlain let Hitler build up the German armed force although that was contravention of Treaty of Versailles. Chamberlain ignored Germany troops in Rhineland in March 1936 violating the same treaty. This was the beginning of appeasement policy. In 1938 March, Hitler annexed Austria, as known as ‘Anschluss’, unite all German-speaking people in one ‘Greater Germany’. Hitler's Anschluss referendum showed Hitler that Britain were "wimps" trying to appease Hitler. After this,
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