Do You Agree with the View That in the Period 1900-19 the British Only Made Concessions to India in Order to Strengthen Their Hold on the Sub-Continent?

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I believe that the British did only make concessions to strengthen their power and control over India. However there are arguments suggesting that these concessions were made purely to benefit India and to increase Indian participation and decision making within the government. The argument that supports this statement is demonstrated through source 13. In Source 13 it tells us that ‘these concessions can be seen as a way of strengthening the Raj and their control within India’, it then continues to say that this opinion is exemplified within the Rowlatt Acts. From my own knowledge I know that these acts, passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in London on the 10th march 1919, gave authorization to imprison people for up to two years without trial, anybody living within the Raj suspected of terrorism. This act was passed as a result of the Amritsar Massacre, when what started out to be a peaceful protest called by Gandhi soon escalated into violence after the arrests of Kitchlew and Pal. This showed clearly that British intentions were to repress rather than reform, and after all of the efforts Indians had made to support the British in the war and there economic suffering, they felt betrayed and provoked widespread fury in India. Source 15 also agrees with this statement, it states that the reforms were a response to the nationalist demand for greater involvement, so it shows us that they did respond, however the source further states that ‘these reforms eased the tension’ implying that they were more symbolic and in actual fact the reforms did nothing to help India gain any more power and control with in the British rule. In source 13 it sates that ‘many Indians were satisfied with the concessions’, this shows us that tension was eased from the reforms as many Indians were satisfied but there was still unrest within India. From my own knowledge I know

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