British Electoral System Pre-1932

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How far do sources A,B and C agree as to the unfairness of the pre-1832 electoral system in Britain? After a quick analysis it is obvious that all the sources agree as to the unfairness of the electoral system in regards to the small electorate. Source A informs us that the town of Old Sarum “which contains not three houses” sends two MPs to parliament whilst Manchester “which contains upwards of sixty-thousand souls” is not allowed to send any MPs due to the fact that it is not a borough. This is supported by Source B where we can clearly see that only approximately nine voters took part to in the election in the Borough of Gatton. This is supported even further by Source C “I was unanimously elected by one elector to represent this ancient borough in Parliament”, this not only agrees with the previous sources but also highlights a variety of issues, for example, corruption and uncontested, or in this case nonexistent, elections We can assume that many of the voters were intimidated or bribed into agreeing with the decision, making it appear 'unanimous', It is also worth noting that the extract is from the writings of Sir Phillip Francis himself, we can extrapolate several pieces of information from this. First off, the man in question is referred to as 'Sir', we can therefore assume that he was wealthy, hence the title. We can take this a step further and question the truthfulness of what is written, it is possible that he bribed the electorate himself and then told everyone else that he was unanimously elected in order to distance himself from any accusations of corruption. Source B backs up this point of uncontested elections. We can assume by analyzing the information that the only candidates were Sir Mark Wood and his son, Mark Wood Jr, two people from the same wealthy family. Uncontested elections are strangely not mentioned in Source A. It is important to
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