Aristotelian View of Othello

3140 Words13 Pages
Running head: “Othello” Aristotelian view of Othello Aristotelian view of Othello Is it truly possible to compare 16th century Shakespeare with a 2400 year old Greek definition. The fourth century B.C. Aristotle defined the parameters of what a tragedy play should reflect. That definition has held true for more than 2400 years. It is truly amazing that the present day scholar can look at the work of Aristotle and use it productively today. Aristotle was a man of many studies. He defined so many parameters of today from biology, zoology, poetics and many more. His specific definition for a tragedy is as follows, “A tragedy is the imitation of an action of high importance, complete and of some amplitude; in language enhanced by distinct and varying beauties; acted not narrated; by means of pity and fear effecting its purgation of these emotions.” (Kennedy/Gioia pg.856) With the study of the definition we will be able to come to a conclusion of whether or not Othello meets the criteria. A tragedy must stay with one serious issue throughout the entire play. Back in Aristotle’s day a Greek tragedy had a chorus in and it was their part to take an active role in the play. This is why plays had a rhythm or a beat to them. So that the chorus could if the play called for it sing the response. This is the part of the definition that is descried as “in language enhanced by distinct and varying beauties”. The tragedy must also be dramatized and not a narrative. The story needs to be dramatic in nature, where all parts are being acted out. In a tragedy the play should have the audience feeling pity or fear for the tragic hero. As the play moves along the pity and/or fear should build. This is described in the definition as “by means of pity and fear effecting purgation”. The purgation of emotions or what is call Catharsisism is the last but not least of the definition
Open Document