Was King George Iii A Tyrant As Stated In The Declaration Of Independence?

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In 1770's Great Britain, after recently winning the Seven Years War, was the most dominant nation in the World. The King of the most powerful nation in the world was King George III. At the time Great Britain had total control of the American colonies; but this was changing. The colonists, already infuriated about previous exploitations decided to revolt. As stated in the declaration of independance, King George,throughout his very long reign, exploited his power over the colonies which ultimately caused the colonist to revolt. The Declaration of Independance provides numerous examples of how the King of Great Britain committed "repeated injuries and usurpations". The Declaration states: "He has refused his Assent to Laws, the most wholesome and necessary for the public good." This basically means that King George has refused to pass any laws that were created by the colonist's for the greater good of the colonies. King George didn't allow the colonies to make their own laws, which is an evident sign of him "using" the colonies. King George only cared about the welfare of his own country of Great Britain, not of his oversea colonies. As long as the colonies continued to provide revenue to it's mother country, George was satisfied. In order to do this he employed laws like the Navigation act, which prohibited trade with countries other than Great britain, and the Stamp Act which put taxes on almost everything the colonist bought. These laws, along with many others, upset the colonist to the breaking point in 1776 when they created the Declaration of Independance. The Declaration also states that "the king has obstructed the administration of justice by refusing his assent to laws for establishing judiciary powers". This basically means that the kings has refused to let any colonists establish a court system. Many legislators and
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