How Far Was Appeasement Justified Analysis

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How far was the Policy of Appeasement Justified? Appeasement was a foreign policy during the 1930's Britain and France let Hitler have what he want in order to maintain peace in Europe. They believed that Hitler had certain aims and that once he had achieved these he would be satisfied. So they allowed him to re-arm, invade the Rhineland. Appeasement policy was justified as many people was pity with Hitler's claims and accepted that the Treaty of Versailles was too harsh. They think that Germany should have been treated more fairly. So they did not object too much when Hitler built up his armed forces, increased his navy and moved his troops into the Rhineland. Appeasement policy was also justified as Britain and France still wanted to avoid another war. They had suffered terribly and so many had been killed in the First World War. They had put their trust in the League of Nations and had put their faith in collective security. It was also…show more content…
For example Czechoslovakia, a country which could have put up a strong resistance to a German invasion was abandoned by France and Britain. As a result, this proved that if there are actions made by the western side to stop Hitler. It might be able to avoid the war as Hitler would not become so aggressive. Thus, it is not justified as this lead to Hitler thinking that no one can stop him. In conclusion, the policy of appeasement was a justified action even though there were many consequences from it. It allowed many countries to prepare for a definite war without having to waste resources or men on small conflict. It also allowed countries to see that a definite war is coming from all the aggressive actions of Hitler. Lastly, I think appeasement lead to WW2 to occur but with Germany losing. Therefore, the appeasement policy was a justified
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