Do You Agree with the View That, in the Years 1534-40, Protestantism Made Only Limited Gains in England?

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Do you agree with the view that, in the years 1534-40, Protestantism made only limited gains in England? At face value source 7 appears to show that Protestantism made only gains in England between the years of 1534-40, however, when we take into account the fact that it mentions Tyndale and how his translation of the Bible was “unacceptable” due to its “protestant interpretation”. We can see that Protestantism was not fully accepted, and people still felt more comfortable with having a Catholic interpretation. This is rather contradicting, seeing as not even 4 months after Tyndale was executed due to heresy because of his protestant translations, there was an act of treason passed. This act of treason meant that anyone who disagreed with the break with Rome would be executed due to heresy. Therefore, it seems as though Henry did not fully accept the protestant beliefs, because he killed Tyndale for spreading them. And if the King could not fully accept the new Protestant religion, then how was the rest of England expected to? Therefore, this leads to the conclusion that Protestantism made only limited gains in England, due to the fact that it was not as accepted as Catholicism was. The idea shown in source 7 of Henry not being able to fully separate himself from his catholic beliefs is further back up by the evidence found in source 8. Although we have to be aware of the fact that source 8 was written by Bishop Tunstall to Reginald Pole in 1536, which means that it may be slightly biased towards Catholicism. The source states that Henry wishes to remain a part of the “unity of Christ’s Catholic Church”. Which tells us that Protestantism is not making enough progress in England as to convince the King, yet it is still making gains. Also in the source, Henry’s title of “Supreme Head” is mentioned. This shows that although Henry may wish to remain part of the
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