To What Extent Was There a Revolution in Punishment and Policing in the 19th Century?

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To what extent was there a revolution in punishment and policing in the 19th century? At the beginning of the 19th century, 60% of Britain's population lived in the countryside, meaning there wasn't any need for a police force as people were living far apart from each other, and away from shops and key financial areas. Also, crime was relatively low, the majority being small crimes like petty thieving. However, by the time of the Industrial Revolution, people were moving into rapidly growing towns and cities. This resulted in overcrowding, and as a result the minimal police force couldn't cope with such a rapid influx of people in such a short time. A police force was needed. There were several key changes between 1750 and 1900. Two centuries of trade and industrial growth meant that Britain was now a wealthy country. In the 1790s, income tax was first introduced to help fund a war against France. Also, during the 1800s, governments collected higher taxes to pay for reforms that would improve people's lives. Another change was in protests and revolution. The French Revolution at the end of the 18th century rung alarm bells to British MPs. Every protest or demonstration appeared to be the first signs of the 'British Revolution' to them. In the years after 1815 there was a lot of protest, one reason for this being that land enclosure meant peasants were thrown off their land, coupled with the poor housing and long working days for people in cities and towns. Finally, voting systems changed. In 1750, only 1 in 8 men had the right to vote, but by 1885 almost all men could vote, meaning parties had to make reforms such as improved housing and healthcare to make themselves stand out from other parties and win them votes in general elections from ordinary people. During the 1700s, a period known as the Enlightenment occurred, which was where philosophers
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